2016 October Cisco Official New Released 400-101 Dumps in Lead2pass.com!
100% Free Download! 100% Pass Guaranteed!
After purchasing the dumps for the 400-101 Exam from Lead2pass, I had no doubt that I’d easily pass the exam. Bundle of thanks to Lead2pass for helping me pass the exam without any troubles.
Following questions and answers are all new published by Cisco Official Exam Center: http://www.lead2pass.com/400-101.html
Refer to the exhibit. Which two issues can cause the interface VLAN10 to be down/down? (Choose two.)
A. The VLAN is inactive or has been removed from the VLAN database.
B. STP is in a forwarding state on the port.
C. A Layer 2 access port is configured with VLAN10, but is in a down/down state.
D. The autostate exclude feature was used on interface VLAN10.
A. Pings from SW2 to SW1 fail because SW1 is pruning VLAN 10.
B. VLANs 10 and 200 are added to the SW2 allowed list on interface fa0/22.
C. Pings from SW2 to SW1 are successful.
D. Only VLAN 200 is added to the SW1 allowed list on interface fa0/22.
A. The EtherChannel is configured as desirable on both ends.
B. The port-channel on the adjacent device is misconfigured.
C. There is a speed and duplex mismatch on interface fa0/12.
D. The EtherChannel is configured as auto on one of the interfaces.
Which three statements about RIPng are true? (Choose three.)
A. It supports route tags.
B. It sends updates on FF02::9.
C. Its RTE last byte is 0XFF.
D. It supports authentication.
E. It sends updates on UDP port 520.
F. It can be used on networks of greater than 15 hops.
Which option is the result if two adjacent routers are configured for OSPF with different process IDs?
A. The routers are unable to establish an adjacency.
B. The routers establish an adjacency, but route exchange fails.
C. The routers establish an adjacency and exchange routes, but the routes are unreachable.
D. The routers establish an adjacency and exchange routes, and the routes are reachable.
Which two commands enable OSPF graceful shutdown? (Choose two.)
A. nsf cisco
B. ip ospf shutdown
D. nsf ietf helper disable
Which object tracking function tracks the combined states of multiple objects?
Which two options are EEM policies? (Choose two.)
B. event detectors
Which two metrics are measured with active probes when PfR voice traffic optimization is in use? (Choose two.)
Which statement about NAT64 is true?
A. It uses one-to-one mapping between IPv6 addresses and IPv4 addresses.
B. It requires static address mapping between IPv6 addresses and IPv4 addresses.
C. It can be used to translate an IPv6 network to another IPv6 network.
D. It can be configured for stateless and stateful translation.
Which three statements about the differences between Cisco IOS and IOS-XE functionality are true? (Choose three.)
A. Only IOS-XE Software can host applications outside of the IOS context.
B. Only the IOS-XE Services Plane has multiple cores.
C. Only the IOS-XE Data Plane has multiple cores.
D. Only the IOS-XE Control Plane has multiple cores.
E. Only IOS-XE module management integrates with packet processing.
F. Only IOS-XE configuration and control is integrated with the kernel.
While troubleshooting an issue for a remote user, you must capture the communication between the user’s computer and a server at your location. The traffic passes through a Cisco IOS-XE capable switch. Which statement about obtaining the capture is true?
A. The Embedded Packet Capture application in the IOS-XE Software can capture the packets, but there is a performance impact.
B. The Embedded Packet Capture application in the IOS-XE Software can capture the packets without impacting performance.
C. The Mini Protocol Analyzer embedded in the IOS-XE Software can capture the packets without impacting performance.
D. The Mini Protocol Analyzer embedded in the IOS-XE Software can be used to capture the packets, but there is a performance impact.
E. Wireshark can capture packets through a SPAN port, but there is a performance impact.
Which two actions can you take to recover an interface in a errdisable state? (Choose two.)
A. Enable UDLD on the switch.
B. Enable errdisable recovery on the switch.
C. Execute the shutdown command on the interface, followed by the no shutdown command.
D. Remove the related commands from the configuration and reenter them.
E. Enable loop guard on the switch.
Which three protocols support SSM? (Choose three.)
C. IGMP v3lite
Which additional feature must be enabled on a switch to allow PIM snooping to function correctly?
A. IGMP snooping
B. port security
C. storm control
D. dynamic ARP inspection
Which protocol uses a proprietary 2-byte Type field for multiple protocol support?
A. username <username> password <password>
B. ppp chap <hostname>
C. aaa authorization exec if-authenticated
D. aaa authorization network if-authenticated
A. Replace the summary-address command with the area-range command.
B. Configure a summary address under R1interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
C. Configure a summary address under R1 interface GigabitEthernet1/0.
D. Configure the no discard-route command in the OSPF process of R1.
E. Configure ip ospf network broadcast under the Loopback0 interface of R1.
Which two descriptions of the keying mechanisms that are used to distribute the session keys used in routing authentication are true? (Choose two.)
A. Peer keying creates a unique one-to-one relationship with another peer.
B. Group keying creates a single keying message to multiple peers.
C. Peer keying creates a single keying message to multiple peers.
D. Group keying creates a unique one-to-one relationship with another peer.
E. Group keying creates a full mesh of keying sessions to all devices.
F. Peer keying creates a full mesh of keying sessions to all devices.
How many address families can a single OSPFv3 instance support?
Which two conditions must be met by default to implement the BGP multipath feature? (Choose two.)
A. The next-hop routers must be the same.
B. Route reflectors must be enabled.
C. All attributes must have the same values.
D. MPLS must be enabled.
E. The next-hop routers must be different.
Which two statements about LDP advertising when Explicit Null is in effect are true? (Choose two.)
A. Penultimate hop popping is disabled.
B. Penultimate hop popping is enabled.
C. It is the default behavior for LDP.
D. It is used for the advertisement of static routes.
E. It is used for the advertisement of connected routes.
You are configuring a DMVPN hub to perform CBWFQ on a per-spoke basis. Which information is used to identify the spoke?
A. the NHRP network ID
B. the spoke tunnel source IP
C. the spoke tunnel interface IP address
D. the NHRP group
Which option is true about output policing for the control plane?
A. It improves router performance by limiting traffic sent to the control plane.
B. It improves router performance by limiting traffic sent from the control plane.
C. It improves router performance by limiting traffic sent to and from the control plane.
D. It controls traffic originated from the router.
Which two types of traffic are blocked when the storm control threshold for multicast traffic is reached on a port? (Choose two.)
I understood all of the questions very easily. I scored 96% on my first try. I am definitely going to spread the word amongst friends and colleagues. Keep up the great work.
400-101 new questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDU2RjeUlHTTZXb1U
2016 Cisco 400-101 exam dumps (All 1219 Q&As) from Lead2pass:
http://www.lead2pass.com/400-101.html [100% Exam Pass Guaranteed]