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Following questions and answers are all new published by Cisco Official Exam Center: http://www.lead2pass.com/200-105.html
A. The IP address is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router.
B. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the anch1 serial interfaces.
C. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the R1 serial interfaces.
D. The Branch1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition.
While you were troubleshooting a connection issue, a ping from one VLAN to another VLAN on the same switch failed. Which command verifies that IP routing is enabled on interfaces and the local VLANs are up?
A. show ip interface brief
B. show ip nat statistics
C. show ip statistics
D. show ip route
Initiate a ping from an end device in one VLAN to the interface VLAN on another VLAN in order to verify that the switch routes between VLANs. In this example, ping from VLAN 2 (10.1.2.1) to Interface VLAN 3 (10.1.3.1) or Interface VLAN 10 (10.1.10.1). If the ping fails, verify that IP routing is enabled and that the VLAN interfaces status is up with the show ip interface brief command.
Which statement about DTP is true?
A. It uses the native VLAN.
B. It negotiates a trunk link after VTP has been configured.
C. It uses desirable mode by default.
D. It sends data on VLAN 1.
Disabling Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP)
Cisco’s Dynamic Trunking Protocol can facilitate the automatic creation of trunks between two switches. When two connected ports are configured in dynamic mode, and at least one of the ports is configured as desirable, the two switches will negotiate the formation of a trunk across the link. DTP isn’t to be confused with VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP), although the VTP domain does come into play.
DTP on the wire is pretty simple, essentially only advertising the VTP domain, the status of the interface, and it’s DTP type. These packets are transmitted in the native (or access) VLAN every 60 seconds both natively and with ISL encapsulation (tagged as VLAN 1) when DTP is enabled.
Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by replicating it to another port or ports on the same switch?
A. copy run start
C. the ICMP Echo IP SLA
A source port, also called a monitored port, is a switched or routed port that you monitor for network traffic analysis. In a single local SPAN session or RSPAN source session, you can monitor source port traffic, such as received (Rx), transmitted (Tx), or bidirectional (both). The switch supports any number of source ports (up to the maximum number of available ports on the switch) and any number of source VLANs.
A source port has these characteristics:
It can be any port type, such as EtherChannel, Fast Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet, and so forth.
It can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
It cannot be a destination port.
Each source port can be configured with a direction (ingress, egress, or both) to monitor. For EtherChannel sources, the monitored direction applies to all physical ports in the group.
Source ports can be in the same or different VLANs. For VLAN SPAN sources, all active ports in the source VLAN are included as source ports.
Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain? (Choose two.)
A. duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN
B. multiple errors on switchport interfaces
C. congestion on the switch inband path
D. a failing NIC in an end device
E. an overloaded shared segment
A collision domain is an area of a single LAN where end stations contend for access to the network because all end stations are connected to a shared physical medium. If two connected devices transmit onto the media at the same time, a collision occurs. When a collision occurs, a JAM signal is sent on the network, indicating that a collision has occurred and that devices should ignore any fragmented data associated with the collision. Both sending devices back off sending their data for a random amount and then try again if the medium is free for transmission. Therefore, collisions effectively delay transmission of data, lowering the effective throughput available to a device. The more devices that are attached to a collision domain, the greater the chances of collisions; this results in lower bandwidth and performance for each device attached to the collision domain. Bridges and switches terminate the physical signal path of a collision domain, allowing you to segment separate collision domains, breaking them up into multiple smaller pieces to provide more bandwidth per user within the new collision domains formed.
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Explanation: Authentication and Authorization
RADIUS combines authentication and authorization. The access-accept packets sent by the RADIUS server to the client contain authorization information. This makes it difficult to decouple authentication and authorization.
TACACS+ uses the AAA architecture, which separates AAA. This allows separate authentication solutions that can still use TACACS+ for authorization and accounting. For example, with TACACS+, it is possible to use Kerberos authentication and TACACS+ authorization and accounting. After a NAS authenticates on a Kerberos server, it requests authorization information from a TACACS+ server without having to re-authenticate. The NAS informs the TACACS+ server that it has successfully authenticated on a Kerberos server, and the server then provides authorization information. During a session, if additional authorization checking is needed, the access server checks with a TACACS+ server to determine if the user is granted permission to use a particular command. This provides greater control over the commands that can be executed on the access server while decoupling from the authentication mechanism.
Which version of SNMP first allowed user-based access?
A. SNMPv3 with RBAC
Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information?
B. 802 1q
Which option describes the purpose of traffic policing?
A. It prioritizes routing protocol traffic.
B. It remarks traffic that is below the CIR
C. It drops traffic that exceeds the CIR.
D. It queues and then transmits traffic that exceeds the CIR.
Traffic policing allows you to control the maximum rate of traffic transmitted or received on an interface. Traffic policing is often configured on interfaces at the edge of a network to limit traffic into or out of the network. In most Traffic Policing configurations, traffic that falls within the rate parameters is transmitted, whereas traffic that exceeds the parameters is dropped or transmitted with a different priority.
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Cisco ACI is a comprehensive SDN architecture. This policy-based automation solution supports a business-relevant application policy language, greater scalability through a distributed enforcement system, and greater network visibility. These benefits are achieved through the integration of physical and virtual environments under one policy model for networks, servers, storage, services, and security.
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
C. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to assign an IP address to a PPPoE client?
A. virtual-template interface
C. dialer interface
D. AAA authentication
PPPoE is configured as a point to point connection between two Ethernet ports. As a tunneling protocol, PPPoE is used as an effective foundation for the transport of IP packets at the network layer. IP is overlaid over a PPP connection and uses PPP as a virtual dial up connection between points on the network. From the user’s perspective, a PPPoE session is initiated by using connection software on the client machine or router. PPPoE session initiation involves the identification of the Media Access Control (MAC) address of the remote device. This process, also known as PPPoE discovery
Which process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?
A. determining the path cost
B. electing designated ports
C. learning the sender bridge ID
D. assigning the port ID
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, Root Switch is elected and Root Ports, Designated Ports and Non-Designated ports in all switches are selected. At Converged condition, the Root Ports and the Designated ports are in forwarding state, and all other ports are in blocking state.
Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
A. It reduces the need for a backup data center.
B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
D. It eliminates the need for a GSS.
Which protocol supports sharing the VLAN configuration between two or more switches?
“VTP allows a network manager to configure a switch so that it will propagate VLAN configurations to other switches in the network”
VTP minimizes misconfigurations and configuration inconsistencies that can cause problems, such as duplicate VLAN names or incorrect VLAN-type specifications. VTP helps you simplify management of the VLAN database across multiple switches. VTP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol and is available on most of the Cisco switches.
How can you disable DTP on a switch port?
A. Configure the switch port as a trunk.
B. Add an interface on the switch to a channel group.
C. Change the operational mode to static access.
D. Change the administrative mode to access.
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number
B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Use the show ip bgp neighbors (registered customers only) command to display information about the TCP and Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) connections and verify if the BGP peer is established. The output of the show ip bgp neighbors command below shows the BGP state as ‘Established’, which indicates that the BGP peer relationship has been established successfully.
R1-AGS# show ip bgp neighbors | include BGP
BGP neighbor is 10.10.10.2, remote AS 400, internal link BGP version 4, remote router ID 126.96.36.199
BGP state = Established, up for 00:04:20
BGP table version 1, neighbor version 1
The show ip bgp neighbors command has been used above with the modifier | include BGP. This makes the output more readable by filtering the the command output and displaying the relevant parts only.
In addition, the show ip bgp summary (registered customers only) command can also be used to display the status of all BGP connections, as shown below.
R1-AGS(9)# show ip bgp summary
BGP router identifier 10.1.1.2, local AS number 400 BGP table version is 1, main routing table version 1
Neighbor V AS MsgRcvd MsgSent TblVer InQ OutQ Up/Down State/PfxRcd 10.10.10.2 4 400 3 3 1 0 0 00:00:26 0
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
D. Frame Relay
What is the default VLAN on an access port?
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Frames received from users in the administratively-defined VLANs are classified or tagged for transmission to other devices. Based on rules that you define, a unique identifier (the tag) is inserted in each frame header before it is forwarded. The tag is examined and understood by each device before any broadcasts or transmissions to other switches, routers, or end stations. When the frame reaches the last switch or router, the tag is removed before the frame is sent to the target end station. VLANs that are assigned on trunk or access ports without identification or a tag are called native or untagged frames. For IEEE 802.1Q frames with tag information, the priority value from the header frame is used. For native frames, the default priority of the input port is used. Each port on the switch has a single receive queue buffer (the ingress port) for incoming traffic. When an untagged frame arrives, it is assigned the value of the port as its port default priority. You assign this value by using the CLI or CMS. A tagged frame continues to use its assigned CoS value when it passes through the ingress port.
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